Why would this person Bruce W. Tarras say "the Irish were slaves too?"?
- 4 weeks ago
Because his ex-wife was married to a black American at one time and he still has "Issues"??? The ex-wife's husband was also caught trying to bring cocaine across the border when he was a customers employee but got caught and sent to prison.
- Anonymous1 month ago
Irish Catholics were denied rights of ownership, freedom of movement, education and many other rights of citizens. They were declared to be and relegated to menial labor with out just compensation.
When the Irish began immigrating to the United States it is a fact that towns had the policy of "No Irish" while other minorities (blacks) were allowed to live in those towns and do business there.
The first "race riot" in the US happened in NYC when freed slaves from the south displaced Irish dock workers. Many of the Blacks could read and write, while the Irish immigrants could not.
Slavery takes many forms. Most US citizens today are "owned" by the banks which take about 1/4 of their income. Share croppers only had to give up 1/10th of the crop to the land owner. Today between taxes and interest almost 1/2 of a persons income is spent for them either by government or interest.
Slavery is still with us, only the mechanism has changed!
- LudwigLv 61 month ago
The origin of this is Irish Catholic racism. It is an attempt to deny the history of black people in America, and erase the Irish part in that history. The transatlantic slave trade was run by a cartel of Irish sea captains based in Northern France.
- larry1Lv 61 month ago
Because after the 'plantations' of British king James I (1600's) no Irish person (as of 1700) could own any land in Ireland. The Irish in their own island were condemned to no country, no land, no vote and to be serfs (agricultural slaves).
But this guy 'Bruce Tarras' is listed on the internet as a 'Redditt' bigot crazy.
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- rustbucketLv 61 month ago
The Irish were in a spot. The English at the time the trouble started knew more about being Catholic than the Irish and had the superior power in their armies and navies. It was an inevitable, an infallible the Irish were going to suffer and suffered they did.
- ajtheactressLv 71 month ago
The Irish were enslaved by the vikings around 800.
Many Irish who were sent to the penal colonies and worked as indentured servants but that is not the same thing as being owned for life and having your children born slaves.
And as CB states they were subject to discrimination in hiring and wages for most of the 17 and 18 hundreds.
- Anonymous1 month ago
Maybe because they were, once upon a time, once upon a place. Did you think American Antebellum period slavery was the only form of slavery throughout human history?
- CBLv 71 month ago
Because they were working for pennies a day compared to non-irish immigrants in the 1800s.